1. The Solid State Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The number of Bravais lattices in cubic crystal is :
[ A ] 3
[ B ] 1
[ C ] 4
[ D ] 14
Answer ⇒ (A)
2. An octahedral void is surrounded by which of the following numbers of spheres ?
[ A ] 4
[ B ] 6
[ C ] 8
[ D ] 12
Answer ⇒ (B)
3. Which of the following types of defects causes a decrease in density of a crystal ?
[ A ] Frenkel
[ B ] Schottky
[ C ] Interstitial
[ D ] F-centre
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. The factor which makes a solid to have a low density is:
[ A ] close packing
[ B ] high atomic mass
[ C ] high occupancy of tetrahedral
[ D ] large atomic radius
Answer ⇒ (D)
5. The unit cell presents in the crystals lattice of diamond is:
[ A ] cube
[ B ] tetragonal
[ C ] hexagonal
[ D ] trigonal
Answer ⇒ (A)
6. Which of the following is a crystalline solid?
[ A ] Diamond
[ B ] Glass
[ C ] Rubber
[ D ] All of these
Answer ⇒ (A)
7. Crystals are:
[ A ] Four types
[ B ] Three types
[ C ] Seven types
[ D ] All of these
Answer ⇒ (A)
8. In body centered cubic crystal structure co-ordinate number of atom is:
[ A ] 4
[ B ] 8
[ C ] 9
[ D ] 12
Answer ⇒ (B)
9. Which of the following is an insulator?
[ A ] Graphite
[ B ] Aluminum
[ C ] Diamond
[ D ] Silicon
Answer ⇒ (C)
10. The number of atoms in bcc arrangement is:
[ A ] 1
[ B ] 2
[ C ] 4
[ D ] 6
Answer ⇒ (B)
2. Solution Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. When a solute associates in a solution the value of van’t Hoff factor is
[ A ] Equal to one
[ B ] Less than one
[ C ] Greater than one
[ D ] Either (b) or (c)
Answer ⇒ (B)
2. The number of moles of solute per kg of solvent is called:
[ A ] Molarity
[ B ] Molality
[ C ] Normality
[ D ] Mole fraction
Answer ⇒ (B)
3. Solutions which boil at a constant temperature without any change in compassion is called:
[ A ] Azeotropic mixture
[ B ] Unsaturated
[ C ] Supersaturated
[ D ] Ideal
Answer ⇒ (A)
4. Among the following substance the lowest vapor pressure is exerted by
[ A ] Water
[ B ] Alcohol
[ C ] Ether
[ D ] Mercury
Answer ⇒ (D)
5. Osmotic pressure depends on
[ A ] The molarity of the solution
[ B ] Temperature
[ C ] Both a and b both
[ D ] The molar mass of the solvent
Answer ⇒ (C)
6. Which of the following the property of ideal solution?
[ A ] Obeys Raoult’s law
[ B ] Does not obey Raoult’s law
[ C ] Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (A)
7. The boiling point of water decreases at high mountains because :
[ A ] atmospheric pressure is low
[ B ] temperature is low
[ C ] pressure is high
[ D ] more air
Answer ⇒ (A)
8. Which of the following is a colligative property of solution?
[ A ] Osmotic Pressure
[ B ] Surface tension
[ C ] Conductivity
[ D ] Half-life period
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. By osmosis Semipermeable membrane (S.P.M.) allows to pass
[ A ] Solute molecules
[ B ] Solvent molecules
[ C ] Complex ion
[ D ] Simple ion
Answer ⇒ (B)
10. The pH of human blood is approximately:
[ A ] 6.5
[ B ] 7.0
[ C ] 7.4
[ D ] 8.2
Answer ⇒ (C)
3. Electrochemistry Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The flow of current in an electrolyte is due to the movement of
[ A ] Electrons
[ B ] Protons
[ C ] Ions
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (C)
2. Metallic conductors conduct electricity through the movement of
[ A ] Ions
[ B ] Metal atoms
[ C ] Free electrons
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (C)
3. Fused NaCl on electrolysis gives ……… on cathode
[ A ] Chlorine
[ B ] Sodium
[ C ] Sodium amalgam
[ D ] Hydrogen
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. Conductance is the reciprocal of
[ A ] Specific resistance
[ B ] Current
[ C ] Resistance
[ D ] Concentration
Answer ⇒ (C)
5. On increasing the dilution, the specific conductance
[ A ] Increases
[ B ] Decreases
[ C ] Remains constant
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
6. Strong electrolytes are those which
[ A ] Dissolve readily in water
[ B ] Conduct electricity
[ C ] Dissociate into ions even at high concentration
[ D ] Dissociate into ions at high dilution
Answer ⇒ (C)
7. The conductivity of an electrolyte depends on the
[ A ] Molecular mass of the electrolyte
[ B ] Boiling point of the solvent
[ C ] Volume of the solvent
[ D ] Degree of ionization
Answer ⇒ (D)
8. Which of the following statement is true
[ A ] When an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed, sodium metal is deposited at cathode.
[ B ] There is no difference between specific conductivity and molar conductivity
[ C ] Silver nitrate solution can be stored in a copper container
[ D ] The addition of liquid bromine to iodine solution turns it violet
Answer ⇒ (D)
9. Which of the following is a secondary cell ?
[ A ] Leclanche cell
[ B ] Lead storage battery
[ C ] Concentration cell
[ D ] All of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
10. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to:
[ A ] atomic no. of cation
[ B ] atomic no. of anion
[ C ] equivalent weight of electrolyte
[ D ] speed of cations
Answer ⇒ (C)
4. Chemical Kinetics Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. When Catalyst is used in an equilibrium process, activation energy
[ A ] Temperature
[ B ] Pressure
[ C ] Concentration
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (D)
2. Factors, affecting the rate of reaction
[ A ] Increases
[ B ] Decreases
[ C ] Increases or decreases
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
3. The value of t1/2 for first order reaction-
[ A ] 0.693/k
[ B ] 0.6/k
[ C ] 0.963/k
[ D ] 0.10/k
Answer ⇒ (A)
4. Quantity of catalyst after reaction
[ A ] Does not change
[ B ] Change
[ C ] Increases
[ D ] Decreases
Answer ⇒ (A)
5. The factor which does not influence the rate of reaction is:
[ A ] nature of reactants
[ B ] concentration
[ C ] temperature
[ D ] molecularity
Answer ⇒ (D)
6. The rate constant of a first-order reaction does not depend on
[ A ] Temperature
[ B ] Pressure
[ C ] Concentration of reactants
[ D ] Activation energy
Answer ⇒ (C)
7. The reaction in which two reactants form a product is called
[ A ] Unimolecular
[ B ] Bimolecular
[ C ] Zero molecular
[ D ] Trimolecular
Answer ⇒ (B)
8. Which of the following equations is known as accelerated rate?
[ A ] –dc/dt
[ B ] –dx/dt
[ C ] –dt/dc
[ D ] +dc/dt
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. For the first order reaction, the half-life is independent of:
[ A ] catalyst
[ B ] temperature
[ C ] both catalyst and temperature
[ D ] initial concentration of reactions
Answer ⇒ (D)
10. Rate of reaction
[ A ] Decreases with time
[ B ] Increases with time
[ C ] Not depend on temp
[ D ] Not depend on concern
Answer ⇒ (B)
5. Surface Chemistry Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following process is responsible for the formation of delta at a place where rivers meet the sea?
[ A ] Emulsification
[ B ] Coagulation
[ C ] Peptisation
[ D ] Electrophoresis
Answer ⇒ (B)
2. A colloidal system in which liquid is dispersed phase and solid is dispersion medium is classified as
[ A ] Gel
[ B ] Gel
[ C ] Emulsion
[ D ] Aerosol
Answer ⇒ (A)
3. Which of the following systems will show Tyndall effect?
[ A ] Aqueous solution of sodium chloride
[ B ] Aqueous solution of aluminum hydroxide
[ C ] Aqueous solution of glucose
[ D ] Aqueous solution of urea
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. A lyophobic colloid cannot be formed by
[ A ] Mixing dispersed phase and dispersion medium
[ B ] Chemical reactions like hydrolysis
[ C ] Exchange of solvent
[ D ] Peptisation
Answer ⇒ (A)
5. Which of the following will not form a colloidal system?
[ A ] Solid-gas
[ B ] Liquid-gas
[ C ] Gas-gas
[ D ] Gas-liquid
Answer ⇒ (C)
6. Which of the following statements is not correct about physisorption?
[ A ] It is a reversible process
[ B ] It requires less heat of adsorption
[ C ] It requires activation energy
[ D ] It takes place at low temperature
Answer ⇒ (C)
7. Fog is an example of colloidal system of
[ A ] liquid in gas
[ B ] gas in liquid
[ C ] solid in gas
[ D ] gas in solid
Answer ⇒ (A)
8. Which of the following is not correct regarding the adsorption of a gas on the surface of solid?
[ A ] On increasing pressure, adsorption keeps on increasing.
[ B ] Enthalpy and entropy changes are negative
[ C ] Chemisorption is more specific than physisorption
[ D ] It is a reversible reaction
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. Powdered substances are more effective adsorbents than their crystalline form because
[ A ] adsorption is an exothermic process
[ B ] they become inert and do not react with the adsorbate
[ C ] the extent of adsorption increases with increase in surface area of the adsorbent
[ D ] adsorption is more if the size of adsorbent is small
Answer ⇒ (C)
10. The term activation of adsorbent is used when
[ A ] adsorbing power is increased by increasing surface area by making the surface rough
[ B ] adsorbing power is increased by dipping the surface in acid to make it smooth
[ C ] adsorbing power is increased by dissolving it in water
[ D ] adsorbing power is decreased to reduce the extent of adsorption
Answer ⇒ (A)
6. General Principles Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Most Electropositive Metals are obtained from their ores by
[ A ] Autoreduction
[ B ] Smelting with carbon
[ C ] Electrolysis of fused salts
[ D ] Thermal Decomposition
Answer ⇒ (C)
2. Pyrolusite is
[ A ] A sulphide ore of Mn
[ B ] An oxide ore of Mn
[ C ] A carbide ore of P
[ D ] A chloride ore of Zn
Answer ⇒ (B)
3. Which of the following metals cannot be obtained by reduction of its metal oxide by aluminium ?
[ A ] Cr
[ B ] Mn
[ C ] Fe
[ D ] Mg
Answer ⇒ (d )
4. How do we separate two sulphide ores by froth floatation method ?
[ A ] By using excess of pine oil
[ B ] By adjusting proportion of oil to water or using depressant
[ C ] By using collectors and froth stabilizers like xanthates
[ D ] By using some solvent in which one of the sulphides is soluble
Answer ⇒ (B)
5. Which of the following statements is correct about the role of collectors added during froth floatation process?
[ A ] Collectors enhance the non- wettability of ore particles
[ B ] Collectors enhance the wettability of gangue particles
[ C ] Collectors help in separating two sulphide ores present in the mixture
[ D ] Collectors help ore particles to settle down below the froth
Answer ⇒ (A)
6. Which of the following is a halide ore?
[ A ] Cassiterite
[ B ] Anglesite S
[ C ] Siderite
[ D ] Carnallite
Answer ⇒ (D)
7. The process of combining metals present in their native ores with mercury to from an alloy is called
[ A ] Alloying
[ B ] Galvanisation
[ C ] Amalgamation
[ D ] Crystallization
Answer ⇒ (C)
8. From the Ellingham graph between Gibb,s energy and temperature out of C and CO which is better reducing agent for ZnO?
[ A ] Carbon
[ B ] CO
[ C ] Both of these
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. In a thermite process …….. is used as reducing agent
[ A ] Zn
[ B ] Al
[ C ] Mn
[ D ] Fe
Answer ⇒ (B)
10. The name of the metal which is extracted from the ore is given below. Mark the example which is not correct ?
[ A ] Malachite – Cu
[ B ] Calamine – Zn
[ C ] Chromite – Cr
[ D ] Dolomite – Al
Answer ⇒ (D)
7. The P-Block Elements Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Boron shows diagonal relation with
[ A ] Al
[ B ] C
[ C ] Si
[ D ] Sn
Answer ⇒ (C)
2. Catenation property is maximum in
[ A ] phosphorus
[ B ] carbon
[ C ] sulphur
[ D ] zinc
Answer ⇒ (B)
3. Element found from sea water is
[ A ] magnesium
[ B ] Sodium
[ C ] Iodine
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (C)
4. Other than oxygen in Group 16 of the periodic table, the element found is :
[ A ] Sulphur
[ B ] Sodium
[ C ] Nitrogen
[ D ] Iron
Answer ⇒ (A)
5. Main source of helium is
[ A ] Air
[ B ] Radium
[ C ] Monazite
[ D ] Water
Answer ⇒ (C)
6. Which one of the following dement is liquid at normal temperature?
[ A ] zinc
[ B ] mercury
[ C ] bromine
[ D ] water
Answer ⇒ (C)
7. Modern periodic table is given by
[ A ] Debonair
[ B ] Mendeleef
[ C ] Mendel
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
8. Which one of the following elements is found in free state in nature?
[ A ] Sodium
[ B ] Iron
[ C ] Zinc
[ D ] Gold
Answer ⇒ (D)
9. Which of the following has maximum ionization potential?
[ A ] Al
[ B ] P
[ C ] Si
[ D ] Mg
Answer ⇒ (B)
10. The number of P-O-P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is
[ A ] 2
[ B ] 0
[ C ] 3
[ D ] 4
Answer ⇒ (A)
8. The d-and f Block elements Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Oxidation number of gold metal is
[ A ] +1
[ B ] 0
[ C ] -1
[ D ] all of these
Answer ⇒ (D)
2. Shape of d-orbital is
[ A ] spherical
[ B ] dumb bell
[ C ] double dumb bell
[ D ] none of these
Answer ⇒ (C)
3. Lanthanoid contraction is due to increase in
[ A ] atomic number
[ B ] effective nuclear charge
[ C ] atomic radius
[ D ] valence electrons
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. Which block of elements are known as transition elements?
[ A ] p-block
[ B ] s-block
[ C ] d-block
[ D ] f-block
Answer ⇒ (c)
5. Most abundant element in earth’s crust is
[ A ] Si
[ B ] Al
[ C ] Zn
[ D ] Fe
Answer ⇒ (A)
6. Which of the following is not an element of first transition series?
[ A ] Iron
[ B ] Chromium
[ C ] Magnesium
[ D ] Nickel
Answer ⇒ (C)
7. Colour of transition metal ions are due to absorption of some wavelength. This results in
[ A ] d-s transition
[ B ] s-s transition
[ C ] s-t/transition
[ D ] d-d transition
Answer ⇒ (D)
8. The melting point of copper is higher than that of zinc because
[ A ] copper has a bcc structure
[ B ] the atomic volume of copper is higher
[ C ] the electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding
[ D ] the s as well as d electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii because of
[ A ] diagonal relationship
[ B ] lanthanoid contraction
[ C ] actinoid contraction
[ D ] belonging to the same group
Answer ⇒ (B)
10. What happens when potassium iodide reacts with acidic solution of potassium dichromate?
[ A ] It liberates iodine
[ B ] Potassium sulphate is formed
[ C ] Chromium sulphate is formed
[ D ] All the above products are formed
Answer ⇒ (D)
9. Coordination Compounds Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. According to Werner’s theory of coordination compounds
[ A ] Primary valency is ionisable
[ B ] Secondary valency is ionizable
[ C ] Primary and secondary valencies are lonisable
[ D ] Neither primary nor secondary valency is ionizable
Answer ⇒ (A)
2. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind to a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?
[ A ] Thiosulphato
[ B ] Oxalato
[ C ] Glycinato
[ D ] Ethane-1.2-diamine
Answer ⇒ (A)
3. Which of the following has magnesium?
[ A ] Chlorophyll
[ B ] Haemocyanin
[ C ] Carbonic anhydrate
[ D ] Vitamin B12
Answer ⇒ (A)
4. EDTA is a
[ A ] unidentate ligand.
[ B ] didentate ligand
[ C ] tridentate ligand
[ D ] hexadentate ligand
Answer ⇒ (D)
5. Which one of the following ligands forms a chelate?
[ A ] Acetate
[ B ] Oxalate
[ C ] Cyanide
[ D ] Ammonia
Answer ⇒ (B)
6. All ligands are
[ A ] Lewis acids
[ B ] Lewis bases
[ C ] neutral
[ D ] none of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
7. The IUPAC name of Ni(CO)4 is
[ A ] tetracarbonyl nickelate 0
[ B ] tetracarbonyl nickelate 11
[ C ] tetracarbonyl nickel 0
[ D ] tetracarbonyl nickel 11
Answer ⇒ (C)
8. The unpaired electron in Ni(CO)4 is
[ A ] 1
[ B ] 2
[ C ] 3
[ D ] 0
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. The geometry of Ni(CO)4 is-
[ A ] Tetrahedral
[ B ] Square planar
[ C ] Octahedral
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (A)
10. Ligands are capable of donating at least:
[ A ] one pair of electrons
[ B ] one electron
[ C ] three electrons
[ D ] all of these
Answer ⇒ (D)
10. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Good conductor of electricity and heat is
[ A ] Anthracite coke
[ B ] Diamond
[ C ] Graphite
[ D ] Charcoal
Answer ⇒ (C)
2. In which of the following allotropes of carbon, percentage of carbon is maximum?
[ A ] Wood charcoal
[ B ] Coconut charcoal
[ C ] Graphite
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (C)
3. Organic compound must contain an element
[ A ] Oxygen
[ B ] Carbon
[ C ] Hydrogen
[ D ] Nitrogen
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. Alkene gives which of the following reactions?
[ A ] Addition reaction
[ B ] Substitution reaction
[ C ] Both a and b
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (C)
5. In which of the following reactions a new carbon-carbon bond is not formed?
[ A ] Wurtz reaction
[ B ] Aldol condensation
[ C ] Cannizaro’s reaction
[ D ] Friedal-Crafts reaction
Answer ⇒ (C)
6. Valency of carbon is
[ A ]1
[ B ] 2
[ C ] 3
[ D ] 4
Answer ⇒ (D)
7. Criteria for purity of organic solid is
[ A ] Boiling point
[ B ] Melting point
[ C ] Specific gravity
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
8. Alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by
[ A ] Addition reaction
[ B ] Substitution reaction
[ C ] Elimination reaction
[ D ] Dehydrohalogenation reaction
Answer ⇒ (B)
9. The negative part of the addendum (the molecule to be added) adds on the carbon atom of the double bond containing the least number of hydrogen atoms. This rule is known as
[ A ] Saytzeffs rule
[ B ] Peroxide rule
[ C ] Markovnikov’s rule
[ D ] van’t hoff rule
Answer ⇒ (C)
10. Which of the following compounds can yield only one monochlorinafed product upon free radical chlorination?
[ A ] 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
[ B ] 2-Methylpropane
[ C ] 2-Methylbutane
[ D ] n-Butane
Answer ⇒ (A)
4 Ch-11 Alcohol, Phenols and Eithers Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting it with :
[ A ] Acetaldehyde
[ B ] Acetal
[ C ] Formaldehyde
[ D ] Chlorobenzene
Answer ⇒ CD)
2. Which of the following is most acidic ?
[ A ] Benzyl alcohol
[ B ] Cyclohexanol
[ C ] Phenol
[ D ] m-Chlorophenol
Answer ⇒ (D)
3. Which of the following is phenol ?
[ A ] Cresol
[ B ] Benzenol
[ C ] Catechol
[ D ] All of these
Answer ⇒ (D)
4. 1-Phenylethanol can be prepared by the reaction of benzaldehyde with
[ A ] methyl bromide
[ B ] ethyl iodide and magnesium
[ C ] methyl iodide and magnesium (Grignard reagent’s)
[ D ] methyl bromide and aluminium bromide
Answer ⇒ (C)
5. Which of the following alcohols will give the most stable carbocation during dehydration?
[ A ] 2-methyl-1-propanol
[ B ] 2-methyl-2-propanol
[ C ] 1-Butanol
[ D ] 2-Butanol
Answer ⇒ (B)
6. Which of the following is formed when phenol is exposed to air?
[ A ] o-Benzoquinone
[ B ] p-Benzoquinone
[ C ] Phenoquinone
[ D ] o-and p-Benzoquinone
Answer ⇒ (D)
7. Which of the following is formed when glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at 503K?
[ A ] Glyceric acid
[ B ] Acrolein
[ C ] Allyl alcohol
[ D ] Methanoic acid
Answer ⇒ (C)
8. What happens when tertiary butyl alcohol is passed over heated copper at 300°C?
[ A ] Secondary butyl alcohol is formed
[ B ] 2-methylpropene is formed
[ C ] 1-butene is formed
[ D ] Butanol is formed
Answer ⇒ (B)
9. By which of the following reactions Phenol is converted into salicyl aldehyde ?
[ A ] Etard reaction
[ B ] Kolbe’s reaction
[ C ] Reimer-Tiemann reaction
[ D ] Cannizzaro’s reaction
Answer ⇒ (C)
10. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water it gives
[ A ] m-bromophenol
[ B ] o- and p-bromophenol
[ C ] 2,4-dibromophenol
[ D ] 2,4,6-tribromophenol
Answer ⇒ (D)
12. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following cannot reduce Fehling’s solution?
[ A ] Formic acid
[ B ] Acetic acid
[ C ] Formaldehyde
[ D ] Acetaldehyde
Answer ⇒ (b)
2. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl, chloride is called
[ A ] Etard reaction
[ B ] Riemer-Tiemann reaction
[ C ] Wurtz reaction
[ D ] Cannizzaro’s reaction
Answer ⇒ (A)
3. There is a large difference in the boiling points of butanal and butanal-1-oldueto
[ A ] intermolecular hydrogen bonding in butan-1-ol
[ B ] intermolecular hydrogen bonding in butanal
[ C ] higher molecular mass of butan-1-ol
[ D ] resonance shown by butanal
Answer ⇒ (A)
4. The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example of
[ A ] nucleophilic addition
[ B ] electrophilic addition
[ C ] free radical addition
[ D ] electromeric addition
Answer ⇒ (A)
5. Aldehydes other than formaldehyde react with Grignard’s reagent to give addition products which on hydrolysis give
[ A ] tertiary alcohols
[ B ] secondary alcohols
[ C ] primary alcohols
[ D ] carboxylic acids
Answer ⇒ (B)
6. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?
[ A ] Phenyl acetaldehyde
[ B ] 2-Methylpentanal
[ C ] Benzaldehyde
[ D ] 1-Phenylpropanone
Answer ⇒ (C)
7. The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are
[ A ] ethanol only
[ B ] ethanal and methanol
[ C ] propanal and methanol
[ D ] methanal only
Answer ⇒ (C)
8. Methyl ketones are usually characterized through
[ A ] Tollen’s reagent
[ B ] Iodoform test
[ C ] Schiff’s Test
[ D ] Benedict solution test.
Answer ⇒ (B)
9. Which compound is obtained when acetaldehydes are treated with dilute solution of caustic soda?
[ A ] Sodium acetate
[ B ] Resinous mass
[ C ] Aldol
[ D ] Ethyl acetate
Answer ⇒ (C)
10. Trans-esterification is a reaction between
[ A ] two ester molecules
[ B ] alcohol and carboxylic acid
[ C ] alcohol and ether
[ D ] alcohol and ester
Answer ⇒ (D)
13. Amines Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. Number of pi (π) bonds in aniline is:
[ A ] 0
[ B ] 2
[ C ] 1
[ D ] 3
Answer ⇒ (D)
2. Ammonia changes the moist red litmus paper into
[ A ] Blue
[ B ] Black
[ C ] Green
[ D ] White
Answer ⇒ (A)
3. Methyl amine can be prepared by
[ A ] Wurtz reaction
[ B ] Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
[ C ] Friedel-Crafts reaction
[ D ] Kolbe reaction
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. Aniline reacts with Acetaldehyde to form
[ A ] Carbylamines
[ B ] Nitrobenzene
[ C ] Imine
[ D ] Schiff’s base
Answer ⇒ (D)
5. The most convenient method to prepare primary (i Amine) amine containing one carbon atom less is
[ A ] Gabriel phthalmidie synthesis
[ B ] Reductive amination of aldehydes
[ C ] Hofmann bromamide reaction
[ D ] Reduction of isonitriles
Answer ⇒ (C)
6. Amines can be considered as derivatives of
[ A ] ammonia
[ B ] water
[ C ] acid
[ D ] base
Answer ⇒ (A)
7. When excess of ethyl iodide is treated with ammonia, the product is
[ A ] ethylamine
[ B ] diethylamine
[ C ] triethylamine
[ D ] tetrathylammonium iodide
Answer ⇒ (D)
8. Amides may be converted into amines by a reaction named after
[ A ] Hofmann Bromide
[ B ] Claisen
[ C ] Perkin
[ D ] Kekule
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. Secondary amines can be prepared by
[ A ] reduction of nitro compounds
[ B ] oxidation of N-substituted amides
[ C ] reduction of isonitriles
[ D ] reduction of nitriles
Answer ⇒ (C)
10. Which of the following amides will give ethylamine on reaction with sodium hypobromide?
[ A ] Butanamide
[ B ] Propanamide
[ C ] Acetamide
[ D ] Benzamide
Answer ⇒ (B)
14. Polymers Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The constituents of Nylon-66 are
[ A ] Benzoic acid and ethylamine
[ B ] Phthalic acid and hexamethylene diamine
[ C ] Phenol and adipic acid
[ D ] Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
Answer ⇒ (D)
2. Which of the following is a polymer containing nitrogen?
[ A ] Terylene
[ B ] Teflon
[ C ] PVC
[ D ] Nylon
Answer ⇒ (D)
3. Terylene has the monomer units ethylene glycol and
[ A ] adipic ‘acid
[ B ] formaldehyde
[ C ] phthalic acid
[ D ] dimethyl terephthalate
Answer ⇒ (D)
4. Bakelite is a
[ A ] Formaldehyde resin
[ B ] Phenol formaldehyde resin
[ C ] Artificial rubber
[ D ] None of these
Answer ⇒ (B)
5. Polyacryiates contain the linkages of
[ A ] amides
[ B ] esters
[ C ] alcohols
[ D ] nitriles
Answer ⇒ (D)
6. For the formation of fibre
[ A ] monomers must contain tetrahedral geometry
[ B ] monomers have high tensile strength
[ C ] monomers must have complex structure
[ D ] monomers must contain linear geometry
Answer ⇒ (D)
7. Which of the following is not a polymer?
[ A ] cellulose
[ B ] rubber
[ C ] protein
[ D ] fructose
Answer ⇒ (D)
8. Which of the following is commonly called synthetic cellulose?
[ A ] dacron
[ B ] terylene
[ C ] rayon
[ D ] nylon
Answer ⇒ (C)
9. In which of the following polymerization new bonds are formed by the elimination of small molecules?
[ A ] simple
[ B ] condensation
[ C ] coordination
[ D ] addition
Answer ⇒ (B)
10. Which of the following is not a plant fibre?
[ A ] jute
[ B ] cotton
[ C ] linen
[ D ] silk
Answer ⇒ (D)
15. Biomolecules Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. During acetylation of glucose it needs v moles of acetic anhydride. The value of x would be
[ A ] 3
[ B ] 5
[ C ] 4
[ D ] 1
Answer ⇒ (B)
2. Invert sugar is
[ A ] a type of cane sugar
[ B ] optically inactive form of sugar
[ C ] mixture of glucose and galactose
[ D ] mixture of glucose and fructose in equimolar quantities
Answer ⇒ (D)
3. Which of the following compounds is found abundatly in nature?
[ A ] Fructose
[ B ] Starch
[ C ] Glucose
[ D ] Cellulose
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. Glycosidic linkage is an
[ A ] amide linkage
[ B ] ester linkage
[ C ] ether linkage
[ D ] acetyl linkage
Answer ⇒ (C)
5. Starch is composed of two polysaccharides which arc
[ A ] amylopectin and glycogen
[ B ] amylose and glycogen
[ C ] amylose (20%) and amylopectin (80%)
[ D ] cellulose and glycogen
Answer ⇒ (C)
6. Which of the following is an acidic amino acid?
[ A ] Glycine
[ B ] Valine
[ C ] Leucine
[ D ] Glutamic acid
Answer ⇒ (D)
7. Globular proteins are present in
[ A ] blood
[ B ] eggs
[ C ] milk
[ D ] all of these
Answer ⇒ (D)
8. Which one of the amino acids can be synthesized in the body?
[ A ] Alanine
[ B ] Lysine
[ C ] Valine
[ D ] Histidine
Answer ⇒ (A)
9. Mark the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins
[ A ] The primary structure of the protein does not change
[ B ] Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins
[ C ] Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins
[ D ] The biological activity of the protein is destroyed
Answer ⇒ (C)
10. Which of the following is an example of an aldopentose?
[ A ] D-Ribose
[ B ] Glyceraldehyde
[ C ] Fructose
[ D ] Erythrose
Answer ⇒ (A)
16. Chemistry in Everyday Life Test
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1. The use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is called
[ A ] chemotherapy
[ B ] physiotherapy
[ C ] angiotherapy
[ D ] polytherapy
Answer ⇒ (A)
2. Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s active site, instead bind to a different site of enzyme. This site is called
[ A ] allosteric site
[ B ] substrate site
[ C ] ionic site
[ D ] competitive site
Answer ⇒ (A)
3. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
[ A ] agonistic drugs
[ B ] antagonists drugs
[ C ] antimicrobial drugs
[ D ] allosteric drugs
Answer ⇒ (B)
4. Barbituric acid and its derivatives are well known as
[ A ] tranquilizers
[ B ] antiseptics
[ C ] analgesics
[ D ] antipyretics
Answer ⇒ (A)
5. A drug which acts as antipyretic as analgesic is
[ A ] chloroquin
[ B ] penicillin
[ C ] chlorodiazeposide
[ D ] 4-acetamidophenol
Answer ⇒ (D)
6. The drugs which are given to the patients suffering from anxiety and mental tension are known as
[ A ] tranquilizers
[ B ] analgesics
[ C ] antimicrobials
[ D ] antibiotics
Answer ⇒ (A)
7. Which of the following can be used as an analgesic without causing addiction?
[ A ] Morphine
[ B ] Aspirin
[ C ] Heroin
[ D ] Codeine
Answer ⇒ (B)
8. Which of the following will not act as a tranquilizer?
[ A ] Equanil
[ B ] Analgin
[ C ] Meprobamate
[ D ] Chlordiazepoxide
Answer ⇒ (B)
9. Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic?
[ A ] Ibuprofen
[ B ] Aspirin
[ C ] Paracetamol
[ D ] Morphine
Answer ⇒ (D)
10. Antihistamines are not helpful
[ A ] in curing nasal allergies
[ B ] in treating rashes caused by itching
[ C ] in bringing down acute fever
[ D ] in vasodilation
Answer ⇒ (C)